Thursday, May 28, 2009

Inconsistency from the California Supreme Court

I'm a little confused by the recent ruling of the California Supreme Court. They upheld Prop 8, which prohibited same-sex marriage. As an aside, I strongly opposed the proposition. But the Court also allowed the same-sex marriages performed before the passage of Prop 8 to stand. This doesn't make much sense. If Proposition 8 is constitutional, why does it only apply to marriages performed after its passage? If there's a constitutional attorney reading this blog, please explain this seeming contradiction.

Another non-constitutional point: shouldn't conservatives be pushing to invalidate these marriages? If gay marriage is as harmful to society as they think it is, then no gay marriages should be allowed. Many on the right have compared it to polygamy (and worse). How about some consistency? Surely God is opposed to this sinfulness!

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